earnest_voice
Well-Known Member
So are we still talking about the OP? (Why so many African Americans have HIV/AIDS?) The case study you cited goes a little ways to explaining your position but also mentions the outcome with this patient was also a result of discontinuing the antiviral treatment and the effect that had on the CXCR4 coreceptor.EV. Genes are racist. That's all a good progressive needs to remember.
http://www.nejm.org/doi/full/10.1056/NEJMoa0802905#t=article
The lack of this genetic mutation in African Americans doesn't explain the prevalence of HIV/AIDS amongst them. I think the factors are too varied to narrow it down to any particular cause. IMO it would be a number of factors compounded by their individual situation.This observation is remarkable because homozygosity for CCR5 delta32 is associated with high but not complete resistance to HIV-1. This outcome can be explained by the behavior of non-CCR5-tropic variants, such as CXCR4-tropic viruses (X4), which are able to use CXCR4 as a coreceptor. The switch occurs in the natural course of infection, and the proportion of X4 increases with ongoing HAART.