Citizens who run corporations have the exact same free speech rights as everyone else, Citizens United gave corporations more rights than American citizens, effectively limiting the power of the American vote. Somewhat ironic considering the conservatives at RIU used that exact same argument against gay marriage when it was an issue "they don't want equal rights, they want more rights"...
"The conceit that corporations must be treated identically to natural persons in the political sphere is not only inaccurate but also inadequate to justify the Court’s disposition of this case. "
"Although they make enormous contributions to our society, corporations are not actually members of it. They cannot vote or run for office…[t]he financial resources, legal structure, and instrumental orientation of corporations raise legitimate concerns about their role in the electoral process. Our lawmakers have a compelling constitutional basis, if not also a democratic duty, to take measures designed to guard against the potentially deleterious effects of corporate spending in local and national races."
"Congress has placed special limitations on campaign spending by corporations ever since the passage of the Tillman Act in 1907…The Court today rejects a century of history when it treats the distinction between corporate and individual campaign spending as an invidious novelty born of Austin v. Michigan Chamber of Commerce."
http://www.law.cornell.edu/supct/html/08-205.ZX.html
Both would bother me
Corporations should not be able to buy elections, that's not what the country was founded on and that's not how our government is supposed to work. What do the 15th & 19th amendments mean if corporations can buy elections? Nothing.
What's stopping foreign owned US corporations like Belgian owned Anheuser-Busch from influencing American politics? Or what about Venezuelan owned Citgo? Do conservatives really want a socialist state buying American elections?