Ok, let's play. If, (and it is a big if as I will demonstrate) the disenfranchised are evenly spread across the political landscape, indeed there will be no net difference. But the alternate argument is that voter fraund must certainly be as evenly spread - resulting in no net difference in either preventing it or not. Now of course, those with the most trouble in their lives are most willing to vote for the party that at least claims to be for the little guy. However. I can not think of a situation where anyone who receives any sort of government support doesn't have an acceptable form of ID. Thus, for the most part we see a pool of non-ID toting people being the poor who don't work or get paid above the table, the old, the infirm, and the young and generaly outlier people - you figure those types are going to vote Republican? Now, given that no one can come up with examples of widespread voter fraud, your other statements lack weight. Dems aren't promoting voter fraud if no voter fraud exists - or at least they are not being very sucessful. Finally, are we embarassed? well, I suppose some of us are... But then again, we all have family members we are a bit ashamed of, but it rarely necessitates our changing our last names.