Proceedings are either civil or criminal, correct. On the second point, again, I think you're casting the United States as a civil law system and ignoring that we have a common law system. Yes, if the source of a crime is the statute, you are bound to the text of the statute and its definitions. But the statute is only one piece of the law. Because court decisions are precedential, you also have to look to court decisions, because they can substantively alter statutes without changing the text.
I'll give you an example of the common law at work to change the meaning of statutory law. I don't remember exactly what it was, but there was a statute limiting the ability of some party to obtain damages from a government. A court basically admitted that the statute limited the damage payments but said developments in the time since congress had originally passed the statute warranted allowing recoveries. Shortly after this happened, congress enacted a new statute into law affirming the original law and discounting the court decision.
I have no idea what "Supreme Court District Court Constitution common law" is.
To be clear, the Board of Governors is a federal agency; the reserve banks are corporations. But another logical fallacy regardless. The fact that the reserve banks and Harpo are both corporations does not mean that they are comparable entities. Corporations are efficient organizational structures, so you shouldn't be surprised that a
bank would be organized as a corporation. The reserve banks are specially empowered by federal statutes to do things other corporations cannot; and unlike corporations, they earn no profits, ownership of shares bestows no control, and the shares of stock are impossible to transfer.
Funny you should mention Oprah currency. The closest we had was this:
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I take it they came up with "Flooz" because the alternative was "Whoopi Notes." The company obviously folded very quickly...