BobCajun
Well-Known Member
The following are the only powers ever granted to the US federal government, AKA; Congress;
Section 8 - Powers of Congress
The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;
To borrow money on the credit of the United States;
To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States, and with the Indian Tribes;
To establish an uniform Rule of Naturalization, and uniform Laws on the subject of Bankruptcies throughout the United States;
To coin Money, regulate the Value thereof, and of foreign Coin, and fix the Standard of Weights and Measures;
To provide for the Punishment of counterfeiting the Securities and current Coin of the United States;
To establish Post Offices and Post Roads;
To promote the Progress of Science and useful Arts, by securing for limited Times to Authors and Inventors the exclusive Right to their respective Writings and Discoveries;
To constitute Tribunals inferior to the supreme Court;
To define and punish Piracies and Felonies committed on the high Seas, and Offenses against the Law of Nations;
To declare War, grant Letters of Marque and Reprisal, and make Rules concerning Captures on Land and Water;
To raise and support Armies, but no Appropriation of Money to that Use shall be for a longer Term than two Years;
To provide and maintain a Navy;
To make Rules for the Government and Regulation of the land and naval Forces;
To provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions;
To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the Militia, and for governing such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States, reserving to the States respectively, the Appointment of the Officers, and the Authority of training the Militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress;
To exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District (not exceeding ten Miles square) as may, by Cession of particular States, and the acceptance of Congress, become the Seat of the Government of the United States, and to exercise like Authority over all Places purchased by the Consent of the Legislature of the State in which the Same shall be, for the Erection of Forts, Magazines, Arsenals, dock-Yards, and other needful Buildings; And
To make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers, and all other Powers vested by this Constitution in the Government of the United States, or in any Department or Officer thereof.
What part of that gives Congress the power to prohibit the possession and use of Cannabis? What part gives them the power to tax the citizenry and use those taxes to fund the DEA with billions of dollars to prosecute Cannabis users? There simply is no such power granted.
What if they say that the power to enforce the "Law of Nations" gives them the power to use taxes to enforce UN narcotics conventions. Hardly. Here's what "Law of Nations" actually means;
"§ 7. Definition of necessary law of nations.
We use the term necessary Law of Nations for what law which results from applying the natural law to Nations. It is necessary, because Nations are absolutely bound to observe it. It contains those precepts which the natural dictates to States, and it is no less binding upon them than it is upon individuals. For States are composed of men, their policies are determined by men, and these men are subject to the natural law under whatever capacity they act. This same law is called by Grotius and his followers the internal Law of Nations, inasmuch as it is binding upon the conscience of Nations. Several writers call it the natural Law of Nations.
§ 8. It is not subject to change.
Since, therefore, the necessary Law of Nations consists in applying the natural law to States, since the natural is not subject to change, being founded on the nature of things and particularly upon the nature of man, it follows that the necessary Law of Nations is not subject to change." http://www.pixi.com/~kingdom/lawintro.html
Obviously, banning a plant is not part of "natural law". It was never suggested by the "God" that the Presidents all swear an oath to. It was simply made up by politicians. Clearly, prosecuting Cannabis users is not one of Congress's powers granted by the Constitution under that section.
The federal politicians may think that the general welfare part in the tax and spending clause allows them to make laws to protect its citizens from the killer weed and use tax funds to pay for it. Well, Thomas Jefferson said otherwise and I'm inclined to believe him over modern politicians when it come to interpreting the Constitution but perhaps the President and Congress would like to appear in the Supreme Court and argue that their own interpretations are far more valid than that of Thomas Jefferson. The following quote is from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General...#United_States
"The United States Constitution contains two references to "the General Welfare", one occurring in the Preamble and the other in the Taxing and Spending Clause. It is only the latter that is referred to as the "General Welfare Clause" of this document. However, it has been argued that, in the case of the United States Constitution, the statement regarding the "general welfare" was not then and is not now intended to give plenary power to the federal government.[2] These clauses in the U.S. Constitution are exceptions to the typical use of a general welfare clause, and are not considered grants of a general legislative power to the federal government as the U.S. Supreme Court has held:
* the Preamble to the U.S. Constitution "has never been regarded as the source of any substantive power conferred on the Government of the United States or on any of its Departments";[3][4] and,
* that Associate Justice Joseph Story's construction of the Article I, Section 8 General Welfare Clauseas elaborated in Story's 1833 Commentaries on the Constitution of the United Stateswas the correct interpretation.[5][6] Justice Story concluded that the General Welfare Clause was not an independent grant of power, but a qualification on the taxing power which included within it a power to spend tax revenues on matters of general interest to the federal government.
Thomas Jefferson explained the latter general welfare clause for the United States: [T]he laying of taxes is the power, and the general welfare the purpose for which the power is to be exercised. They [Congress] are not to lay taxes ad libitum for any purpose they please; but only to pay the debts or provide for the welfare of the Union. In like manner, they are not to do anything they please to provide for the general welfare, but only to lay taxes for that purpose.
Notice the last sentence in Jefferson's quote. That is exactly what Congress was doing when it enacted Cannabis prohibition;
Jefferson; "they are not to do anything they please to provide for the general welfare, but only to lay taxes for that purpose."
This shows us just how far Congress has strayed from the intentions of the founding fathers, they are now doing the exact opposite of what Thomas Jefferson told them they could do. I think that's commonly referred to as "violating the Constitution of the United States of America and spitting on Thomas Jefferson's grave".
So how is Congress paying the billions of dollars to fund their war on drugs through the DEA? From taxes. Where in the Constitution does it say they can lay taxes for that purpose? Nowhere. They probably used this part to justify putting such a high tax on hemp trade that it made it completely impractical to produce;
"To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States, and with the Indian Tribes"
But how does that give them the power to flat out prohibit even the possession of Cannabis? Obviously it doesn't. Congress used that part to get control on pharmaceuticals trade but what if you are simply growing and using Cannabis yourself? That doesn't involve commerce at all.
So, in conclusion, there is no constitutional basis for federal prohibition of Cannabis, which would require an amendment as in the case of alcohol, unless modern politicians want to make the argument that a constitutional amendment was made in the 20th century without reason and then another was made to inactivate the first one when they changed their minds. I think that would be a hard case to make. Or do they maintain that suddenly during Nixon's Presidency the whole constitutional process was changed allowing him to make up the CDSA and make up the idea that Cannabis is the same as heroin and should therefore be treated the same way legally. The fact that Nixon is a criminal and was impeached should give you a clue to the validity of that argument. There is also no constitutional basis for taxing Americans to enforce that unconstitutional prohibition. If the individual states want to outlaw Cannabis, that's one thing. The federal government doing it is quite another. That is simply not within their constitutional powers, period. If a state decides not to prosecute Cannabis possession, that's the end of the matter. The feds cannot overrule that. That's my opinion, unless someone can explain how it is erroneous.
Section 8 - Powers of Congress
The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States;
To borrow money on the credit of the United States;
To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States, and with the Indian Tribes;
To establish an uniform Rule of Naturalization, and uniform Laws on the subject of Bankruptcies throughout the United States;
To coin Money, regulate the Value thereof, and of foreign Coin, and fix the Standard of Weights and Measures;
To provide for the Punishment of counterfeiting the Securities and current Coin of the United States;
To establish Post Offices and Post Roads;
To promote the Progress of Science and useful Arts, by securing for limited Times to Authors and Inventors the exclusive Right to their respective Writings and Discoveries;
To constitute Tribunals inferior to the supreme Court;
To define and punish Piracies and Felonies committed on the high Seas, and Offenses against the Law of Nations;
To declare War, grant Letters of Marque and Reprisal, and make Rules concerning Captures on Land and Water;
To raise and support Armies, but no Appropriation of Money to that Use shall be for a longer Term than two Years;
To provide and maintain a Navy;
To make Rules for the Government and Regulation of the land and naval Forces;
To provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions;
To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the Militia, and for governing such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States, reserving to the States respectively, the Appointment of the Officers, and the Authority of training the Militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress;
To exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District (not exceeding ten Miles square) as may, by Cession of particular States, and the acceptance of Congress, become the Seat of the Government of the United States, and to exercise like Authority over all Places purchased by the Consent of the Legislature of the State in which the Same shall be, for the Erection of Forts, Magazines, Arsenals, dock-Yards, and other needful Buildings; And
To make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers, and all other Powers vested by this Constitution in the Government of the United States, or in any Department or Officer thereof.
What part of that gives Congress the power to prohibit the possession and use of Cannabis? What part gives them the power to tax the citizenry and use those taxes to fund the DEA with billions of dollars to prosecute Cannabis users? There simply is no such power granted.
What if they say that the power to enforce the "Law of Nations" gives them the power to use taxes to enforce UN narcotics conventions. Hardly. Here's what "Law of Nations" actually means;
"§ 7. Definition of necessary law of nations.
We use the term necessary Law of Nations for what law which results from applying the natural law to Nations. It is necessary, because Nations are absolutely bound to observe it. It contains those precepts which the natural dictates to States, and it is no less binding upon them than it is upon individuals. For States are composed of men, their policies are determined by men, and these men are subject to the natural law under whatever capacity they act. This same law is called by Grotius and his followers the internal Law of Nations, inasmuch as it is binding upon the conscience of Nations. Several writers call it the natural Law of Nations.
§ 8. It is not subject to change.
Since, therefore, the necessary Law of Nations consists in applying the natural law to States, since the natural is not subject to change, being founded on the nature of things and particularly upon the nature of man, it follows that the necessary Law of Nations is not subject to change." http://www.pixi.com/~kingdom/lawintro.html
Obviously, banning a plant is not part of "natural law". It was never suggested by the "God" that the Presidents all swear an oath to. It was simply made up by politicians. Clearly, prosecuting Cannabis users is not one of Congress's powers granted by the Constitution under that section.
The federal politicians may think that the general welfare part in the tax and spending clause allows them to make laws to protect its citizens from the killer weed and use tax funds to pay for it. Well, Thomas Jefferson said otherwise and I'm inclined to believe him over modern politicians when it come to interpreting the Constitution but perhaps the President and Congress would like to appear in the Supreme Court and argue that their own interpretations are far more valid than that of Thomas Jefferson. The following quote is from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General...#United_States
"The United States Constitution contains two references to "the General Welfare", one occurring in the Preamble and the other in the Taxing and Spending Clause. It is only the latter that is referred to as the "General Welfare Clause" of this document. However, it has been argued that, in the case of the United States Constitution, the statement regarding the "general welfare" was not then and is not now intended to give plenary power to the federal government.[2] These clauses in the U.S. Constitution are exceptions to the typical use of a general welfare clause, and are not considered grants of a general legislative power to the federal government as the U.S. Supreme Court has held:
* the Preamble to the U.S. Constitution "has never been regarded as the source of any substantive power conferred on the Government of the United States or on any of its Departments";[3][4] and,
* that Associate Justice Joseph Story's construction of the Article I, Section 8 General Welfare Clauseas elaborated in Story's 1833 Commentaries on the Constitution of the United Stateswas the correct interpretation.[5][6] Justice Story concluded that the General Welfare Clause was not an independent grant of power, but a qualification on the taxing power which included within it a power to spend tax revenues on matters of general interest to the federal government.
Thomas Jefferson explained the latter general welfare clause for the United States: [T]he laying of taxes is the power, and the general welfare the purpose for which the power is to be exercised. They [Congress] are not to lay taxes ad libitum for any purpose they please; but only to pay the debts or provide for the welfare of the Union. In like manner, they are not to do anything they please to provide for the general welfare, but only to lay taxes for that purpose.
Notice the last sentence in Jefferson's quote. That is exactly what Congress was doing when it enacted Cannabis prohibition;
Jefferson; "they are not to do anything they please to provide for the general welfare, but only to lay taxes for that purpose."
This shows us just how far Congress has strayed from the intentions of the founding fathers, they are now doing the exact opposite of what Thomas Jefferson told them they could do. I think that's commonly referred to as "violating the Constitution of the United States of America and spitting on Thomas Jefferson's grave".
So how is Congress paying the billions of dollars to fund their war on drugs through the DEA? From taxes. Where in the Constitution does it say they can lay taxes for that purpose? Nowhere. They probably used this part to justify putting such a high tax on hemp trade that it made it completely impractical to produce;
"To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States, and with the Indian Tribes"
But how does that give them the power to flat out prohibit even the possession of Cannabis? Obviously it doesn't. Congress used that part to get control on pharmaceuticals trade but what if you are simply growing and using Cannabis yourself? That doesn't involve commerce at all.
So, in conclusion, there is no constitutional basis for federal prohibition of Cannabis, which would require an amendment as in the case of alcohol, unless modern politicians want to make the argument that a constitutional amendment was made in the 20th century without reason and then another was made to inactivate the first one when they changed their minds. I think that would be a hard case to make. Or do they maintain that suddenly during Nixon's Presidency the whole constitutional process was changed allowing him to make up the CDSA and make up the idea that Cannabis is the same as heroin and should therefore be treated the same way legally. The fact that Nixon is a criminal and was impeached should give you a clue to the validity of that argument. There is also no constitutional basis for taxing Americans to enforce that unconstitutional prohibition. If the individual states want to outlaw Cannabis, that's one thing. The federal government doing it is quite another. That is simply not within their constitutional powers, period. If a state decides not to prosecute Cannabis possession, that's the end of the matter. The feds cannot overrule that. That's my opinion, unless someone can explain how it is erroneous.